----------------- HES POSTING ----------------- Steve Kates wrote, "To a classical economist the notion of aggregate demand was utterly fallacious". I could not find substantiation for this assertion in the preceding discussion, and I cannot find a substantiation in my own scattered recollections of what the classical political economists had to say. Still, I find the assertion interesting, and, if it can be substantiated, important. Its a tall order, because what has been asserted is not only that the classical economists had the notion of aggregate demand, but that they explicitly stated it to be a false notion; that is, they conjured up aggregate demand then stated that there was no such thing. So, Steve, could you submit some indication as to how your statement is or might be substantiated? Robin Neill ------------ FOOTER TO HES POSTING ------------ For information, send the message "info HES" to [log in to unmask]