----------------- HES POSTING ----------------- Dear all, For a paper I am currently working on, in which I try to trace back the origin of the so-called Beveridge curve (or UV curve, the empirical relation between recorded unemployment and vacancies data), I have two questions: 1) Why was this UV-curve named after William Beveridge? I found some references in economic literature to Beveridge's book Full Employment in a Free Society (1944), but Beveridge mentions nothing on the relation between vacancies and unemployment in there. It seems to me therefore that the references are made to his definition of full employment, which he expressed in terms of unemployment and vacancies. Is this a plausible explanation? Or are there other reasons why it was named after William Beveridge? 2) Who was the first economist who called it the Beveridge curve? I would highly appreciate any reference on these topics. Peter Rodenburg, University of Amsterdam ------------ FOOTER TO HES POSTING ------------ For information, send the message "info HES" to [log in to unmask]