----------------- HES POSTING ----------------- If, according to Smith, wealth does not lead to happiness, why to Smith does the economist (who studies the ways of increasing wealth) perform a "moral" functions? I do think that Smith in general thought that wealth increases happiness, but not always and with the Aristotelian criterion of "moderation". I am just working on this. Thanks for useful insights. Luigino Bruni ------------ FOOTER TO HES POSTING ------------ For information, send the message "info HES" to [log in to unmask]