I am working on my chapter on Mandeville. Naturally, I referred to Keynes' brief synopsis. In a footnote, we read, In his History of English Thought in the Eighteenth Century Stephen wrote (p. 297) in speaking of ‘the fallacy made celebrated by Mandeville’ that ‘the complete confutation of it lies in the doctrine—so rarely understood that its complete apprehension is, perhaps, the best test of an economist—that demand for commodities is not demand for labour’. 1. Could Mill have been alluding to Mandeville? 2. Isn't a reference to "best test" demand for ideological purity? -- Michael Perelman Economics Department California State University Chico, CA 95929 530 898 5321 fax 530 898 5901 http://michaelperelman.wordpress.com