I am working on my chapter on Mandeville.  Naturally, I referred to
Keynes' brief synopsis.  In a footnote, we read,

In his History of English Thought in the Eighteenth Century Stephen
wrote (p. 297) in speaking of ‘the fallacy made celebrated by
Mandeville’ that ‘the complete confutation of it lies in the
doctrine—so rarely understood that its complete apprehension is,
perhaps, the best test of an economist—that demand for commodities is
not demand for labour’.

1. Could Mill have been alluding to Mandeville?

2. Isn't a reference to "best test" demand for ideological purity?

-- 
Michael Perelman
Economics Department
California State University
Chico, CA
95929

530 898 5321
fax 530 898 5901
http://michaelperelman.wordpress.com