===================== HES POSTING ====================== A query closely related to Ross's very interesting one is how and why such a simplistic (and simple-minded?) version of the basic logical distinction between an explanatory argument and a judgment of morality came to be the 'official' version of the American economists. Why didn't a more complex (and plausible) account of this distinction gain a foothold in America? Why the simple-mindedness? (In contrast, say, to the richer & more complex account found in, say, Hayek or Kuhn). Greg Ransom Dept. of Philosophy UC-Riverside http://members.aol.com/gregransom/hayekpage.htm ============ FOOTER TO HES POSTING ============ For information, send the message "info HES" to [log in to unmask]