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It has been a while since I studied this, but it has always struck me as 
odd that Adam Smith, In WEALTH OF NATIONS, did not cite the most 
important immediately previous book on political economy, by Sir James 
Steuart (1767). 
 
Because in many ways their discussion of the meaning of the market (and 
human participation in the market) differs, and (perhaps) because their 
discussion of the government (Steuart's "statemen") is so similar, I have 
always thought / assumed / wished to prove (to the extent possible) that 
Smith intentionally did not cite Steuart in order to de-legitimate [is 
that a word?] his competitor. 
 
Depending on how serious you get, I could do more looking / re-looking. 
 
Peter G. Stillman 
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