----------------- HES POSTING ----------------- I'm currently writing on models of causal explanation in formal and mathematical social science--especially in economics, where they tend to be drawn from the philosophy of science and the natural sciences and then must be modified to fit the practical considerations indigenous to social science. Now that that's out of the way, my question is: When did the phrase "ceteris paribus" first start appearing in the economics literature? Does anyone know who first used it in the modern way? That is, I would like to find out who first used it to replace the vague sense that the "laws" of economics must be hedged with the idea that the laws are perfectly strict and exceptionless as long as specific conditions are met, and not otherwise. Any help would be appreciated. Jonathan Halvorson Department of Philosophy Columbia University ------------ FOOTER TO HES POSTING ------------ For information, send the message "info HES" to [log in to unmask]