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Those are good points and, at least provisionally, I would not want to 
argue 
that there are no pure collective consumption goods. 
 
Returning to the question of whether food is a pure private good.  You seem 
to be assuming that the physical ingestion of food, at least initially, is 
only what is meant by its "consumption,"  and that this is confined to an 
individual person. 
 
Yet, why must consumption of food be described as simply physical 
ingestion? 
Is it because that is the only way to obtain the concept of food as a pure 
private good? This would seem to confine the definition of "pure private 
goods" to a purely physicalistic description, under severely restricted 
conditions. 
 
Sam Bostaph 
 
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