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Those are good points and, at least provisionally, I would not want to
argue
that there are no pure collective consumption goods.
Returning to the question of whether food is a pure private good. You seem
to be assuming that the physical ingestion of food, at least initially, is
only what is meant by its "consumption," and that this is confined to an
individual person.
Yet, why must consumption of food be described as simply physical
ingestion?
Is it because that is the only way to obtain the concept of food as a pure
private good? This would seem to confine the definition of "pure private
goods" to a purely physicalistic description, under severely restricted
conditions.
Sam Bostaph
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