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Dear all, 
 
For a paper I am currently working on, in which I try to trace back the  
origin of the so-called Beveridge curve (or UV curve, the empirical  
relation between recorded unemployment and vacancies data), I have two  
questions: 
 
1) Why was this UV-curve named after William Beveridge? 
 
I found some references in economic literature to Beveridge's book Full Employment in a
Free Society (1944), but Beveridge mentions nothing on the relation between vacancies and
unemployment in there. It seems to me therefore that the references are made to his
definition of full employment, which he expressed  in terms of unemployment and vacancies.
Is this a plausible explanation? Or are there other reasons why it was named after William
Beveridge?
 
2) Who was the first economist who called it the Beveridge curve? 
 
I would highly appreciate any reference on these topics. 
 
Peter Rodenburg, 
University of Amsterdam 
 
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