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I'm currently writing on models of causal explanation  
in formal and mathematical social science--especially in economics, 
where they tend to be drawn from the philosophy of science and the natural 
sciences and then must be modified to fit the practical considerations 
indigenous to social science. 
 
Now that that's out of the way, my question is:  When did the 
phrase "ceteris paribus" first start appearing in the economics 
literature? Does anyone know who first used it in the modern way?  That 
is, I would like to find out who first used it to replace the vague sense 
that the "laws" of economics must be hedged with the idea that the laws 
are perfectly strict and exceptionless as long as specific conditions are 
met, and not otherwise.  Any help would be appreciated. 
 
Jonathan Halvorson 
Department of Philosophy 
Columbia University 
 
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