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Steve Kates wrote, "To a classical economist the notion of  
aggregate demand was utterly fallacious".   
 
I could not find substantiation for this assertion in the preceding  
discussion, and I cannot find a substantiation in my own scattered  
recollections of what the classical political economists had to say.   
Still, I find the assertion interesting, and, if it can be substantiated,  
important.   
 
Its a tall order, because what has been asserted is not only that  
the classical economists had the notion of aggregate demand, but  
that they explicitly stated it to be a false notion; that is, they  
conjured up aggregate demand then stated that there was no such  
thing.  So, Steve, could you submit some indication as to how your  
statement is or might be substantiated?   
 
Robin Neill 
 
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