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Dear HES list members 
 
Can you help me with an enquiry about Adam Smith's use of the term 'an invisible hand'? 
 
Begg, Fischer and Dornbusch "Economics" 7th edition, 2003, p8 (and all preceding editions)
refers to the passage as follows:
 
"Smith argued that individuals pursuing their self-interest would be led 'as by an
invisible hand' to do things that are in the interests of society as a whole."
 
As far as I am aware Smith used the expression once each in The History of Astronomy, the
Theory of Moral Sentiments, and the Wealth of Nations. (Astronomy III.2, TMS IV.1.10, and
WN IV.ii.9.)  In none of these does he speak about man being led 'AS by an invisible
hand', but he does speak of the rich in TMS, and owners of capital in WN, as being led by
an invisible hand. I have used The Glasgow Edition of the Works and Correspondence of Adam
Smith, which is a variorum edition so there should be no other editions where the passage
has an 'as' in it.  Yet I have spoken to several I would regard as experts in the area who
said that they thought Smith said 'as by an invisible hand', or even 'as if by an
invisible hand'.
 
It is legitimate - though I don't agree - to argue that Smith was using metaphor, and when
he spoke of the invisible hand, and that this did not mean the hand of a benign deity,
but, for example, market forces. It is not legitimate, however, to insert an 'as' into one
of these passages and thus demonstrate the Smith was using simile - IF the word does not
occur in the original.  Simile would close the matter: it would be clear that Smith was
not literally referring to an invisible hand, but using the expression to stand for
something else.  So just two letters can have consequences!
 
So: please could anyone let me know anywhere where Smith uses the expression 'as by an
invisible hand' or similar?  You could help prevent me making a fool of myself!
 
Best wishes 
 
Andy Denis 
City University, London 
 
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