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(1) On a point of personal privilege, and (2) to deflect discussion back to 
the initial question: what is the place of the New Institutional Economics 
in the evolution of generic Economics? 
 
I wrote nothing that would negate any point made in Beottke's second 
paragraph. I do not consider myself "heterodox", and I am not contending 
with any "beast". 
 
Have we developed an orthodox view of heterodoxy in Economics?  I am afraid 
that silence on my part will leave the impression that I acquiesce in being 
labeled "heterodox". 
 
Robin Neill. 
 
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