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Date: | Fri Mar 31 17:18:39 2006 |
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----------------- HES POSTING -----------------
Bogdan, I guess that I misunderstood you and it is possible that I will
do so again. Anyway, because its summer and I have a few extra minutes,
I will try to answer your question. You might also consider asking it on
the Hayek list, where there is probably a greater proportion of
political philosophers than there are on this list.
I think that the main reason why economic arguments are now brought to
bear on political philosophy is that economics begins with the
demonstration that under certain _conditions_, individuals acting in
their own interest will benefit the interest of others, as those others
define it. The exceptions are certain cases of external effects, public
goods, and the collusive monopoly. Two of those conditions are private
property rights and freedom of enterprise. Neither of these conditions
is unambiguous. However, the fact that the vast majority of experts in
the field of economics accept this idea means that for those who care
about whether people serve each others interests, there is a strong case
for establishing institutions that promote these two \"liberal\"
conditions. Note that, for the most part, economics developed _after_
Locke\'s writings. Thus, it is not surprising that those who follow Locke
would pay less attention to economics.
I don\'t know whether the argument you attribute to Hayek is an economic
one or not. It seems to me that he is saying that people who have their
lives planned for them will not develop the ability to plan for
themselves, just as a child who is given a shoe-tying servant for life
will never develop the ability to tie her shoes. Hayek seems to regard
the ability to plan for oneself as a desirable characteristic of
individuals in society. I am not sure that this has much to do with
economics, however.
Pat Gunning
American University of Sharjah, United Arab Emirates
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