Subject: | |
From: | |
Date: | Fri Mar 31 17:18:58 2006 |
Content-Type: | text/plain |
Parts/Attachments: |
|
|
----------------- HES POSTING -----------------
Well, for some more obscure questions, does anybody know how it is that in the UK (notably
The Economist magazine) there is a widespread tendency to use the form "laisser faire"?
This is not the original French, and is indeed incorrect
French, meaning literally "to let to make," which is silly near gibberish. The original, "
laissez-faire" clearly has an imperative "let! [them, the businesspeople, addressed to the
government] do! [whatever]" Does anybody know where the peculiar British usage came from
and why anybody would think it is superior?
A more recent development is the now widespread usage in the U.S. media of capitalizing
"Internet," even when this is used as an adjective. It is neither a person, a specific
location, or a specific historical epoch or movement, or anything else that appears in the
books I read on what words are to be capitalized. I note that on this one, the Brits again
(at least The Economist) does not capitalize this word, a practice with which I agree.
Does anyone know when and how and where and why this capitalization appeared in the U.S.?
Enough true obscuranta for one day.
Barkley Rosser
------------ FOOTER TO HES POSTING ------------
For information, send the message "info HES" to [log in to unmask]
|
|
|