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The question of the relationship of Keynes's use of "animal spirits" to Jane Austen's use
of the same term in her novels was also suggested 10 years ago in the published
correspondence regarding the article cited earlier by Roger Koppel in the Journal of
Economic Perspectives. I do not have my copies of the journal to hand, so I can't give
credit to the person who made the suggestion then.
 
But I would like to side with Visser and Waterman on this question. In addition to
Waterman's observation, I would add that in Keynes's reading lists from the first decade
of the 20th century that Austen's novels are listed regularly (that is, in several
different years) and there is at least one letter from the same period in which he sings
her praises. (Sorry, but my notes on the reading list and letters are also not at hand.)
It seems highly likely that Keynes's use of the term is derivative of Austen's.
 
Brad Bateman 
 
 
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