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Date: | Fri Mar 31 17:18:19 2006 |
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----------------- HES POSTING -----------------
Steve Kates wrote, "To a classical economist the notion of
aggregate demand was utterly fallacious".
I could not find substantiation for this assertion in the preceding
discussion, and I cannot find a substantiation in my own scattered
recollections of what the classical political economists had to say.
Still, I find the assertion interesting, and, if it can be substantiated,
important.
Its a tall order, because what has been asserted is not only that
the classical economists had the notion of aggregate demand, but
that they explicitly stated it to be a false notion; that is, they
conjured up aggregate demand then stated that there was no such
thing. So, Steve, could you submit some indication as to how your
statement is or might be substantiated?
Robin Neill
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