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I would like to confirm Barkley Rosser's conjecture. The term
"economist" (without "political" before it) was commonly used in
France to refer to the Physiocratic clique -- notably by their
opponents and with usually negative connotations (apparently, they
did not use it to describe themselves). I have found several
passages from Diderot in the 1760s, for instance, where the term is
used in this manner. So did, of course, Adam Smith (Wealth of
Nations, 1776: Bk. 4, Ch.9) and David Hume (I believe in a letter to
Morellet c.1769, but I haven't been able to trace it).
This use seems to have persisted into the 19th Century. For
instance, scanning J.B. Say's "Lettres a Malthus" (1820), the only
references that I could find for the term was in connection with the
Physiocrats ("Qu'est-ce qui nous distingue des economistes de
l'ecole de Quesnay?", and later on "ne recommencons pas le
ridicule des economistes du XVIIIe siecle, par d'indeterminables
discussions sur le produit net des terres"). David Ricardo, in his
Principles (1817) never uses the term himself, but cites Buchanan
(Ch. 17) and Malthus (Ch. 32), both of whom use the term
"economist" clearly in relation to the Physiocrats.
For the most part, it seems as if the term "economist" continued to
be in a negative fashion for quite a while. A prime example is
Edmund Burke's well-known comment "But the age of chivalry is
gone. That of sophisters, economists; and calculators has
succeeded; and the glory of Europe is extinguished forever"
(Reflections on Revolution in France, 1790). Thomas Carlyle uses
the term "economist" -- with and without the "political" prefix -- with
even greater bitterness in his recurrent jibes (e.g. "Teach a parrot
the terms supply-and-demand and you've got an economist.").
Thomas de Quincey refers to the "utter feebleness of the main herd
of modern economists" (Confessions of English Opium Eater,
1821), and then goes on to praise Ricardo WITHOUT referring to
him as an "economist". James Mill (1821) and William Nassau
Senior (1830) used the term "political economist" positively, but
never utter just plain "economist".
So, I am not sure when it was first used without negative
connotations. I suppose The Economist newspaper (founded 1843)
thought well of itself, so the term must have acquired positive
meaning around then (or perhaps they were trying to advertise
themselves with self-deprecating cheerfulness?)
In support of Barkley Rosser's other conjecture, the term
"economie politique" was, in fact, first used by Antoine de
Montchritien (1615).
Goncalo Fonseca
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