Fascinating. My curiosity is about the exact 
analytical step that did the work. We shifted 
from administrative restrictions to property 
rights. What triggered this shift? Is it the fact 
that imagining that these things could be traded, 
it would begin to make sense to present them as 
property rights rather than administrative 
restrictions? Or is it the reverse?

I guess what I should try and do is follow the 
idea from Sidgwick, Pigou, Knight to Coase, right?

Sorry for my ignorance

Axel Gosseries