In its own way, the sparse response to my original query has sort of confirmed my suspicions that there is not all that much in an anti-Keynesian way being written. I cannot tell whether this lack of response is because the question is uninteresting or because there really is no one whose views one could readily point to. 

Moreover, Alan Isaac wrote about the question that  

"I have no idea what this even means. Would an anti-Keynesian position be an ideological stance?  In which case, who cares?  Or would it be an empirical stance, so that e.g. physicists should say that Einstein had an 'anti-Newtonian' position? One might hope that economists would not be 'pro' or 'anti' past analyses but would simply grapple with the evidence the best they can." 

Yet I do think even he must know what my question means since the stimulus over the past two years has been termed Keynesian time and again. Being Keynesian in theoretical terms means accepting the notion of aggregate demand as a force independent of aggregate supply acting on the level of economic activity - AS-AD. IS-LM, C+I+G and that sort of thing. And in policy terms, being Keynesian reflects a belief that the stimulus created a net improvement in the level of economic activity - or more importantly perhaps, in the rate of unemployment - compared with what would have prevailed had there been no stimulus. 

I know that if you are an Austrian economist, then you would think there had been no value in the stimulus. But is there no one else? Are we really all Keynesian now unless we're Austrians? 



Dr Steven Kates
School of Economics, Finance
    and Marketing
RMIT University
Level 12 / 239 Bourke Street
Melbourne Vic 3000

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