On 11/23/2011 2:53 PM, James Ahiakpor wrote:
> He claims, "I see no defense of totalitarianism [in the
> preface], what I see is Keynes selling a theory that he
> thinks is most appropriate for explaining the operation of
> a totalitarian economy."  Really?  Is that what the
> /General Theory/ is supposed to explain?


But this is the same kind of misreading that you originally
offered of the German preface.  In the face of overwhelming
textual evidence, it seemed you had recanted.  But here you
seem to propose the same confused reading once again.

In answer to your question: no, that is not what the GT is
"supposed to explain".  The GT is supposed to explain
macroeconomic outcomes in a liberal economy. However, Keynes
argues that because it is *general*, it *also* explains
macroeconomic outcomes in other types of economy.

What is so mysterious about that?

Cheers,
Alan Isaac