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Michael Williams claims that "a surplus over the socially specific
reproductive requirements of labour is a perfectly well-defined" notion.
I don't see how this could be possible once the subsistence wage cannot
be "perfectly defined". Surplus too would become something "vaguely"
determined. Besides, in talking on this topic, we can't forget all the
problems related to Marx's (and Ricardo's) labor theory of value. Think
of Sraffa: he had to abandon the notion of subsistence wage and defined
the surplus only in physical terms or in price terms, certainly not in
labor terms.
Claudio Sardoni
Dipartimento di Scienze Economiche
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