I do not understand why one would reference Reder (2000)
without referencing Hamowy (2002).  Has Hamowy's rebuttal
of suggestions that Hayek was anti-Semitic been subsequently
disputed?  Even Reder (2002) clarified in response that
"the subject of  my article was not anti-Semitism simpliciter,
but ambivalent anti-Semitism", although Reder then refers to the
"pervasive (mild?) anti-Semitism" of "Keynes and his milieu",
so the subject seems to vary somewhat depending on the target economist.

Honestly, the more this matter is pursued, the more confused
I get.  Is there something other than ad hominem going on
here, and if so, what is it?

Thanks,
Alan Isaac

PS
Hamowy, Ronald, (2001).
"A Note on Hayek and Anti-Semitism",
History of Political Economy, 34(1), pp. 255-260

Reder, Melvin W. (2002).
"Reply to Hamowy's Note on Hayek and Anti-Semitism",
History of Political Economy 34(1), pp. 261-272




On 5/21/2014 7:05 AM, Robert Leeson wrote:
> Melvin Reder's (2000) less-than-comprehensive account of Hayek's anti-Semitism