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Date: | Mon, 28 Jan 2019 11:42:02 +0000 |
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In vol XIII , Collected Writings of John Maynard Keynes, 1973,
p.424: Editor:" Drafts of chapter 6-11 following the mid-1934 table of contents",
Keynes' chapter heading : " 6 Effective Demand and Income"
p.425, Keynes: "... The following notation will be used. _Y_ for _Y_ncome..."
where _..._ is my transcript for italics fonts. Keynes used _Y_ for its phonetic similarity to _I_.
See also
Collected writings ... vol XIV, under "Drafts", probably from a later draft (1935?)
Keynes, p.424-5: "It may be convenient to recapitulate our notation:...._Y_ for _Y_ncome, ..."
In the _General Theory_ the first appearance of Y for income is on p.90 as "...income in terms of wage-units (_Yw_)..."
Best wishes
Michael Ambrosi
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Von: Societies for the History of Economics <[log in to unmask]> im Auftrag von Fred Foldvary <[log in to unmask]>
Gesendet: Sonntag, 27. Januar 2019 23:13:07
An: [log in to unmask]
Betreff: [SHOE] why Y?
What was the first use of Y for aggregate output or income?
And why Y?
Fred Foldvary
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