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Some time ago, Tony Brewer wrote:
> First, it is important to distinguish between (a) what Marx said and
> (b) what we might now think is the truth. Michael is careful about
> that, but his post seems to move from (a) to (b). The issues involved
> overlap, in this case, but it is still an important principle that we
> should keep the two apart.
This distinction may seem obvious, and at the most general level, I
have no disagreement with it. Subsequently, Andrew Kliman affirmed
his agreement with it.
However, I think that it cannot do the work that Tony here, and
Andrew here and elsewhere wants it to do - because it is not easy to
sustain in detailed practice. The *text* (words, sentences,
paragraphs, sections and complete works, or notes) of an author can
of course be unambiguously identified empirically (though not without
some fuzziness from translation and editing, and now and again
fraudulent misrepresentation). But the *meaning* (concepts,
propositions and arguments) is a much more mediated matter. Harking
back to an earlier discussion, are we to be concerned with what the
author *intended*? This is to be established, presumably, by
reference to the text, but also to surrounding texts, correspondence
etc, the social, cultural and intellectual context, contemporary
interpretations etc.. Or is the concept of the Author dead, so that
the text itself is subject to multiple readings, again in a discourse
presumably informed by all the foregoing, plus the interpreter's own
perspective and concerns. Or something in between, in which the
overall spirit of the author's intentions are to be
discerned, and the text interpreted and examined to establish
internal coherence, changing positions, etc around them?
It seems to me that we do want to know what an author intended to
say about her theoretical object, but that we also want to develop,
correct, 'up-date' and so on. And in this last we will be at
least as concerned with the logical imperatives of our authors
vision. History of thought, I guess, focuses on the former, and those
interested in the 'truth of the matter' about the theoretical object,
on the latter. Of course, in this last endeavour, we should beware of
ascribing to an author thoughts that cannot be supported by the text
(in the light of all the other sources indicated above).
An example: I am currently working on a paper arguing that Marx did
not *need* a commodity theory of money. This is clearly concerned
with the latter rather than the former end of the spectrum just
identified. But I am certainly concerned to preserve the overall
coherence of what *I* conceive to be Marx's conceptual system, and
have (re-) read virtually every thing the old boy had to say on
money, in researching this paper. My conclusions (so far) are
broadly that he didn't need a commodity theory of money (as I
understand such a theory), that he almost certainly held such a
theory, but that that, first, this is an historically understandable
mistake, and, second, there is also much evidence of elements of a
non-commodity (what *I* would call a 'value-form' theory of money)
struggling to get out. I may be right, I may be wrong, but my
arguments cannot, imo, be ruled out by reference to some distinction
between what Marx said and what I am arguing to be the case about a
moment of our common theoretical object.
Another, quite different, example might be a discussion about whether
Samuelson's famous 'over-lapping generations' model has to be
talking about money (as his text indicates) or whether it is in fact
only about what Thomas Mayer called 'hierlooms'. It is a matter of
complex interpretation - only here, of course, we could ask the man
himself about his intentions (even if we don't feel the need to be
bound by them). Nor is it irrelevant to the history of economic
thought. A notion of over-lapping generations certainly informs new
classical monetary theory (is it the same as Samuelsons? does it
share his notion's alleged weaknesses as an account of money?)
Thus, I would suggest, the distinction is not helpful to Tony's
response to me, because I have been arguing that (my interpretation
of) Marx's account of wages is OK, and (in part therefore) has been
fruitful in stimulating some of the later developments to which I
adverted.
As another example, Andrew's use of the distinction has
operated primarily in support of his position that all of Marx's
important results (especially in his macrodynamics) can be replicated
by modern analytical methods, correctly used, and so are not subject
to the various well known criticism of them (post-Sraffian charges
of the redundancy and incoherence of Marx's labour theory of value,
and Okishio's demonstration of the invalidity of his
theory of the tendency of the rate of profit to fall). What is
more, Andrew (et al)'s work is intended only to demonstrate this
replication, in particular, it does not aim to provide arguments as
to the truth or validity of Marx's arguments. (Sorry if that's a
caricature, Andrew.) Again, it would seem that the <What Marx
said>/<What is true of the world> dichotomy is here collapsing before
our very eyes.
{I'll postpone any substantive discussion of Tony's point about the
dual determination of wages until I address his editorial.}
However, it is not clear that his claim that my argument about the
coherence of Marx's dual account of wages is
> an answer to (b) [what I think is the truth] not (a) [what I think Marx asserts], and
> fits (d) [that wages are determined by some dynamic
> interaction involving accumulation, technical change, bargaining
> power, and so on, so that they are determined simultaneously with
> profits etc.,] not (c) above [ the > claim that wages are determined by subsistence,
including a
> historical and moral element, *prior to* the determination of profit
> (or surplus value) etc.]
Nor do I agree that
> (c) seems to be what Marx claimed
> in the bulk of his discussion of surplus value in volume I of Capital,
is a problem for me. The logic of Marx's argument at least
requires that the moral & historical level of 'subsistence' is
perceived as an ever present constraint within the dynamics of ch.
25, not in any logical sense prior to them.
Furthermore, it is, imo, not the case that
> Ch. 25 fits (d).
Since Marx is here concerned with dynamics, not simultaneous
determination.
Whatever is correct, is certainly complex - and, I have tried to
indicate, is not helped by positing a dichotomy between (a) and (b).
Dr Michael Williams
Department of Economics
School of Social Sciences
De Montfort University
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