Fascinating. My curiosity is about the exact
analytical step that did the work. We shifted
from administrative restrictions to property
rights. What triggered this shift? Is it the fact
that imagining that these things could be traded,
it would begin to make sense to present them as
property rights rather than administrative
restrictions? Or is it the reverse?
I guess what I should try and do is follow the
idea from Sidgwick, Pigou, Knight to Coase, right?
Sorry for my ignorance
Axel Gosseries