On 6/9/2011 3:53 PM, Pat Gunning wrote:
> I don't follow your statement about a conflation of terms.


I was referring to http://mises.org/humanaction/chap3sec3.asp

I understand Marx as saying that behavior (including argument)
is influenced by ideology.

I find that uncontroversial (even if the determining
the mechanism generating the ideology is controversial).

I find Mises to also understand Marx this way, but to
then level an accusation of "Marxian" polylogism.

Polylogism, as I understand it, is the suggestion that
*logical criteria for argument* (e.g., what counts as formal
logical argument) varies across groups (e.g., classes
or races).  That seems an entirely separate claim, and
I don't think it is in Marx.  (Correct me if I'm wrong.)

Thus I suggest Mises engages in conflation: conflating the
uncontroversial claim that ideology influences behavior
with a non-existent claim of polylogism.

fwiw,
Alan