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Are we making a distrinction between the idea that economic laws are  
historically relative and the more specific issue about 'terms'?  The idea  
that economic laws are historically relative is certainly older.  Adam  
Smith, e.g., thought that the labor theory of value applied to an 'early  
and rude' state of society, for example, but not to later societies in  
which capital goods had become "accumulated in the hands of specific  
persons" and land became private property, and both became more  
generalized and significant parts of production processes.   
 
Mat Forstater 
 
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