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Date: | Wed, 28 Jan 2009 17:30:19 -0500 |
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[I created a new subject line because I think we've veered far enough
away from David Colander's original request for help on his calendar
project. I trust you agree that the issue of correctly dating events
falls within the purview of the history of economics and merits
discussion on this list, even if only a subset of our members are
interested in this topic. HB]
Can anyone explain *why* the difference in days between the Julian
and Gregorian?
I had always thought that the Gregorian was 'more accurate' because
it used leap years with more precision -- every year divisible by 4
is a leap year, except for those divisible by 100, which are not leap
years (unless they are divisible by 400, in which case they are leap
years) Whew!
So what does the Julian calendar do to be different, and to fall behind?
(I assume that the Julian calendar does leap years on every year
divisible by four, and so falls behind by roughly a day every century
[except for those centuries, like 1600 and 2000, that are divisible
by 400 and thus *are* leap years].)
I hope someone can be both more elegant and more accurate.
Peter G. Stillman
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