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Fri Mar 31 17:18:37 2006 |
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Neil Skaggs writes:
"I concur with Matthew Forstater's view that banks do
indeed create credit that can be used to finance investment. The process
was spelled out in wonderful clarity by Henry Dunning Macleod in _The
Theory and Practice of Banking_ (1855) in the context of a discussion of
the economic development of Scotland. A short version of Macleod's thesis
is this: After the break-up of the feudal system in the Highlands around
the middle of the 18th century, Scottish lords found themselves in
possession of massive tracts of undeveloped lands, with plenty of
underemployed labor also available. But they had no way of developing the
resources until the Scottish banks provided financing. They did this by
lending THEIR OWN NOTES - chiefly one pound notes - on the security of
tenant leases or multiple signatures of guarantors. The notes circulated
as the basic medium of exchange, rarely being sent back to the issuing
banks for conversion into coin. This enabled the banks to add both assets
(loans) and liabilities (notes) to their balance sheets by reducing their
reserve ratio to a minimal level. Macleod notes that the loans were made
to entrepreneurs for the purpose of increasing production. And they did
so. Rondo Cameron (_Banking in the Early Stages of Industrialization_
[1967]) confirms the gist of Macleod's story.
The key to understanding the process of banking in development is to scrap
the textbook view of the monetary base-times-multiplier process of money
creation. The Scottish banks were well-capitalized and well-respected.
The banks were able to circulate their notes because that had good credit -
people trusted their ability to pay in coin should the need arise. As
Macleod stresses, the bankers saw wealth as the present discounted value of
future production. They acted on their beliefs, and Scotland
benefitted."
My response: This is all perpetuation of the fairy tale. Neil has
to show that the banks' Assets (Reserves and Loans) exceeded their
Liabilities (Deposits) to confirm Macleod's conjecture.
Furthermore, what does it mean to say banks "were well-capitalized"?
And capitalized by whom? (A bank's 'capital' or equity must come
from its owners savings!)
Also if anyone knew how to create a loan from thin air and earn
interest income, why are we all struggling to make a living? I sure
would like to know this secret and become a millionaire!
If Macleod's speculation which Neil so well believes were true, it
would be somewhat equivalent to, say, the Bank of America entering $1
million (okay, just $10,000) in my account without any savings to
back it up. I would then gladly issue purchasing commands with the
checking leaves also issued by the bank (the equivalent of banknotes
of old) and commandeer real resources. And if all banks were
patriotic enough, they could do the same and permit enterpreneurs to
command resources and create more wealth. And all banks would make
good "money" too. Recall that interest income is typically the
greatest source of bank revenue. So what's wrong with the banks?
Is this story getting somewhat funny? Sure it is; yesterday I quoted
David Ricardo's exclamation at this kind of story: "To what
absurdities would not such a theory lead us!"
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