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A query closely related to Ross's very interesting one is how and why such 
a simplistic (and simple-minded?) version of the basic logical distinction 
between an explanatory  argument and a judgment of morality came to be the 
'official' version of the American economists.  Why didn't a more complex 
(and plausible) account of this distinction gain a foothold in America? 
Why the simple-mindedness?  (In contrast, say, to the richer & more complex 
account found in, say, Hayek or Kuhn). 
 
Greg Ransom 
Dept. of Philosophy 
UC-Riverside 
http://members.aol.com/gregransom/hayekpage.htm 
 
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