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In his help to Peter Stillman,
Tom Walker writes:
> Because they were arguing that overproduction *in general* was
> impossible. At a high enough level of abstraction, the logic is
quite > unassailable. If one accepts that an economy is a logical
structure rather > than a human cultural and social artifact,
overproduction IS impossible. > Of course, the road leading up to
that high a level of abstraction is full > of potholes and unbridgable
chasms. But once there, the view is > breathtaking. > Surely,
Say's Law is about the real economy, not merely some logical
structure. At its simplest, the argument is that production is the
source from which we earn income to spend. Our incomes are
titles to the goods and services produced, hence we cannot
produce more than there is demand in the aggregate. If income is
not directly consumed, it may be saved -- loaned out -- and the
borrowers spending instead of the income earners. To quote J.S.
Mill's statement of the point (from Keynes's GT, p. 18):
What constitutes the means of payment for commodities is simply
commodities. Each person's means of paying for the production of
other people consist of those which he himself possesses. All
sellers are inevitably, and by the meaning of the word, buyers.
Could we suddenly double the productive powers of the country, we
should double the supply of commodities in every market; but we
should, by the same stroke, double the purchasing power.
Everybody would bring a double demand as well as supply;
everybody would be able to buy twice as much, because everybody
would have twice as much to offer in exchange.
Of course, Say's Law admits the over-production of some specific
commodities -- which would lead to their prices falling in order to
clear their supplies. However, should their sellers refuse to let
those prices fall, they may have to resort to borrowing other
people's money (savings) in order to maintain their own desired
consumption or purchases. The latter action would cause interest
rates to rise.
David Ricardo makes the point thus: "Too much of a particular
commodity may be produced, of which there may be such a glut in
the market, as not to pay the capital expended on it; but this
cannot be the case with respect of all commodities ..." [Note that
"capital" here means funds, not capital goods, as has become the
practise in economics.]
Thus, a glut in one market shows up as an excess demand in another.
One of Keynes's paths to his misunderstanding of the law of
markets was to have reasoned that consumption and investment
spending are the only sources of aggregate demand (in a closed
economy), while saving is a withdrawal from the expenditure
stream. Worse, saving is not the source of business "capital" or
finance -- the banks take care of that without first taking deposits
from the public. And when Keynes reasons that saving may be all
hoarding (against the classical explanation that saving is NOT
hoarding), he felt quite justified in believing that there could be more
prodution than sufficient aggregate demand to absorb the output.
Hence Keynes's crusade to promote aggregate demand in order to
promote employment and income growth. Much of modern
macroeconomics follows that line of reasoning.
In the classical argument, if there is an excess demand for money
(cash), there must be an excess supply of all goods and services.
The price level must fall, with the result that there will be some
unemployment (as average real wages rise) until nominal wages fall
to restore that rate of employment -- the opposite of the forced-
saving mechanism.
Thus, viewed correctly as the classics stated it, the law of markets
is not that much of a theoretical abstraction. But stated as "supply
creates its own demand," and that the proponents of the argument
also asserted that "there is always full employment" as Keynes
did, it is easy to wonder how anyone could have believed such
mythology.
James Ahiakpor
California State University, Hayward.
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