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Two questions, Pat. 
 
1)RE: 
>My understanding of the subjective theory of value (i.e., of 
> prices). 
 
Do you understand the theory - the entire discussion of economic value  
really - to assume that value = price, i.e. to be value in exchange only,  
in a market setting?  Or may it apply to value in use for a particular  
actor or class of actors, or to non-market goods... in either case there  
being no transactions and hence no prices?   
 
2)RE:  
> peoples' behavior had effects only because actors perceive such  
> changes and take them into account in their judgments about what are 
> factors of production, in their appraisals of the factors, and in their 
> decisions to produce and invest. 
 
This seems to describe the supply or production side. Certainly, it may  
be that the entrepeneur was making the most concious and purposeful  
decisions... was the knowing actor.  But were the choices based on  
observations which include behavior on the consumption or demand  
side? Was any such demand side influence explicit in the subjective  
theory of value.... or implicit.... or a later understanding?  Surely in the  
20th century producers recognized the ability of wide scale advertising  
and marketing to influence demand behavior and it became a factor of  
production. But consumer preferences must involve many other  
variables.  Did this play at all in the subjective theory?    
 
Thanks. 
 
Scott Cullen 
 
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