TWAIN-L Archives

Mark Twain Forum

TWAIN-L@YORKU.CA

Options: Use Classic View

Use Proportional Font
Show Text Part by Default
Condense Mail Headers

Topic: [<< First] [< Prev] [Next >] [Last >>]

Print Reply
Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit
Sender: Mark Twain Forum <[log in to unmask]>
From: Michael Williams <[log in to unmask]>
Date: Fri, 19 Mar 2004 18:00:39 -0600
Content-Type: text/plain; charset="iso-8859-1"
MIME-Version: 1.0
Reply-To: Mark Twain Forum <[log in to unmask]>
Parts/Attachments: text/plain (26 lines)
I stand with those suggesting that it is incorrect.  There is, to me, a
difference between referring to "the nigger Jim" and simply "nigger Jim."
In the passage from _Among the Indians_, "Me and Tom Sawyer and the nigger
Jim,...", the "the" designates Huck's reminding the reader of Jim's race.
If the "the" weren't there, the "nigger" would then become part of Jim's
title, and I have yet to see anything that suggests this was Twain's
intention...

Mike Williams



----- Original Message -----
From: "Fred Kaplan" <[log in to unmask]>
To: <[log in to unmask]>
Sent: Friday, March 19, 2004 3:57 PM
Subject: "nigger Jim"


> As I understand the issue, the argument is not about whether Twain named =
> Jim "Nigger Jim" but whether he referred to him as "nigger Jim."  My =
> reference in the bio is to "nigger Jim." And the question is whether or =
> not that is an accurate quotation. The Mac Donnell & the Fisher claim =
> seems to be that Twain never referred to Jim as "nigger Jim." Clearly he =
> did. Am I wrong about this?

ATOM RSS1 RSS2